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NCLEX NCLEX-RN Sample Question Answers
Question # 1
A female baby was born with talipes equinovarus. Her mother has requested that the nurse
assigned to the baby come to her room to discuss the baby’s condition. The nurse knows
that the pediatrician has discussed the baby’s condition with her mother and that an orthopedist has been consulted but has not yet seen the baby. What should the nurse do
first?
A. Call the orthopedist and request that he come to see the baby now. B. Question the mother and find out what the pediatrician has told her about the baby’scondition. C. Tell the mother that this is not a serious condition. D. Tell the mother that this condition has been successfully treated with exercises, casts,and/or braces.
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) The nurse should call the orthopedist after assessing the mother’s knowledge. (B) The
nurse must first assess the knowledge of the parent before attempting any explanation. (C)
The nurse should assess the mother’s knowledge of the baby’s condition as the first
priority. (D) This answer is correct, but the priority is B.
Question # 2
A client states to his nurse that “I was told by the doctor not to take one of my drugsbecause it seems to have caused decreasing blood cells.” Based on this information, whichdrug might the nurse expect to be discontinued?
A. Prednisone B. Timolol maleate (Blocadren) C. Garamycin (Gentamicin) D. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Prednisone is not linked with hematological side effects. (B) Timolol, a -adrenergic
blocker is metabolized by the liver. It has not been linked to blood dyscrasia. (C)
Gentamicin is ototoxic and nephrotoxic. (D) Phenytoin usage has been linked to blood
dyscrasias such as aplastic anemia. The drug most commonly linked to aplastic anemia is
chloramphenicol (Chlormycetin).
Question # 3
A 3-year-old child is in the burn unit following a home accident. The first sign of sepsis in
burned children is:
A. Disorientation B. Low-grade fever C. Diarrhea D. Hypertension
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Disorientation is the first sign of sepsis in burn children. (B) Low-grade fever is not
indicative of sepsis. (C) Diarrhea is not indicative of sepsis. (D) Hypertension is not
indicative of sepsis.
Question # 4
A 19-month-old child is admitted to the hospital for surgical repair of patent ductusarteriosus. The child is being given digoxin. Prior to administering the medication, the nurseshould:
A. Not give the digoxin if the pulse is_60 B. Not give the digoxin if the pulse is_100 C. Take the apical pulse for a full minute D. Monitor for visual disturbances, a side effect of digoxin
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Digoxin should not be given to adults with an apical pulse < 60 bpm. (B) Digoxin should
be given to children with an apical pulse > 100 bpm. With a pulse < 100 bpm, the
medication should be withheld and the physician notified. (C) Prior to digoxin administration
in both children and adults, an apical pulse should be taken for 1 full minute. Aside from the
rate per minute, the nurse should note any sudden increase or decrease in heart rate,
irregular rhythm, or regularization of a chronic irregular heart rhythm. (D) Early indications
of digoxin toxicity, such as visual disturbances, occur rarely as initial signs in children.
Question # 5
During the active phase of rheumatic fever, the nurse teaches parents of a child with acute
rheumatic fever to assist in minimizing joint pain and promoting healing by:
A. Putting all joints through full range-of-motion twice daily B. Massaging the joints briskly with lotion or liniment after bath C. Immobilizing the joints in functional position using splints, rolls, and pillows D. Applying warm water bottle or heating pads over involved joints
Answer: C
Explanation: (A) Any movement of the joint causes severe pain. (B) Touching or moving the joint causes
severe pain. (C) Immobilization in a functional position allows the joint to rest and heal. (D)
Pressure from the warm water bottle or pads can cause severe pain or burning of the skin.
Question # 6
A 4 year old has an imaginary playmate, which concerns the mother. The nurse’s bestresponse would be:
A. “I understand your concern and will assist you with a referral.” B. “Try not to worry because you will just upset your child.” C. “Just ignore the behavior and it should disappear by age 8.” D. “This is appropriate behavior for a preschooler and should not be a concern.”
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) This is normal for a preschooler, and a referral is not appropriate. (B) Telling a parent
not to worry is unhelpful. This response does not address the mother’s concern. (C) This
response is incorrect. The behavior is normal and will usually disappear by the time the
child enters school. (D) This behavior is normal development for a preschooler.
Question # 7
One afternoon 3 weeks into his alcohol treatment program, a client says to the nurse, “It’s
really not all my fault that I have a drinking problem. Alcoholism runs in my family. Both my
grandfather and father were heavy drinkers.” The nurse’s best response would be:
A. “That might be a problem. Tell me more about them.” B. “Risk factors can often be controlled by self-responsibility.” C. “It sounds like you’re intellectualizing your drinking problem.” D. “Your grandfather and father were both alcoholics?”
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Focusing is an effective therapeutic strategy. This response, however, allows the client
to “defocus” off the topic of learning how to accept responsibility for his behavior and future
growth. (B) The nurse can educate the client about both the “genetic risk” for the
development of alcoholism and ways to make long-term healthy lifestyle changes. (C) This
response is inappropriately confrontational and condescending to the client. (D) Reflection
of content can be an effective verbal therapeutic technique. It is used inappropriately here.
Question # 8
The nurse writes the following nursing diagnosis for a client in acute renal failure—Impairedgas exchange related to:
A. Decreased red blood cell production B. Increased levels of vitamin D C. Increased red blood cell production D. Decreased production of renin
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Red blood cell production is impaired in renal failure owing to impaired erythropoietin
production. This causes a decrease in the delivery of oxygen to the tissue and impairs gas
exchange. (B) The conversion of vitamin D to its physiologically active form is impaired in
renal failure. (C) In renal failure, a decrease in red blood cell production occurs owing to an
impaired production of erythropoietin, leading to impaired gas exchange at the cellular
level. (D) The decreased production of renin in renal failure causes an increased
production of aldosterone causing sodium and water retention
Question # 9
Which of the following findings would necessitate discontinuing an IV potassium infusion in
an adult with ketoacidosis?
A. Urine output 22 mL/hr for 2 hours B. Serum potassium level of 3.7 C. Small T wave of ECG D. Serum glucose level of 180
Answer: A Explanation: (A) Adequate renal flow of 30 mL/hr is a necessity with potassium infusions because
potassium is excreted renally. (B) Because potassium level will decrease during correction
of diabetic ketoacidosis, potassium will be infused even if plasma levels of potassium are
normal. (C) A small T wave is normal and desired on the electrocardiogram. A tall, peakedT-wave could indicate overinfusion of potassium and hyperkalemia. (D) Glucose levels of
<200 are desirable.
Question # 10
A 9-week-old female infant has a diagnosis of bilateral cleft lip and cleft palate. She hasbeen admitted to the pediatric unit after surgical repair of the cleft lip. Which of the followingnursing interventions would be appropriate during the first 24 hours?
A. Position on side or abdomen. B. Maintain elbow restraints in place unless she is being directly supervised. C. Clean suture line every shift. D. Offer pacifier when she cries.
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Placing the infant on her abdomen may allow for injury to the suture line. (B) Elbow
restraints prevent the infant from touching the suture line and yet leaves hands free. (C)
The suture line is cleaned as often as every hour to prevent crusting and scarring. (D)
Sucking of a bottle or pacifier places pressure on the suture line and may delay healing and
cause scarring.
Question # 11
The physician decides to prescribe both a short-acting insulin and an intermediate-actinginsulin for a newly diagnosed 8-year-old diabetic client. An example of a short-acting insulinis:
A. Novolin Regular B. Humulin NPH C. Lente Beef D. Protamine zinc insulin
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Novolin is a short-acting insulin. (B, C) NPH and Lente are intermediate-acting insulins.
(D) Protamine zinc insulin is a long-acting insulin preparation.
Question # 12
The nurse is admitting a client with folic acid deficiency anemia. Which of the followingquestions is most important for the nurse to ask the client?
A. “Do you take aspirin on a regular basis?” B. “Do you drink alcohol on a regular basis?” C. “Do you eat red meat?” D. “Have your stools been normal?”
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Aspirin does not affect folic acid absorption. (B) Folic acid deficiency is strongly
associated with alcohol abuse. (C) Because folic acid is a coenzyme for single carbon
transfer purines, calves liver or other purines are the meat sources. (D) Folic acid does not
affect stool character.
Question # 13
The most important goal in the care plan for a child who was hospitalized with anaccidental overdose would be to:
A. Determine child’s activity pattern B. Reduce mother’s sense of guilt C. Instruct parents in use of ipecac D. Teach parents appropriate safety precautions
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) This goal is not the most important. (B) There is always some guilt when an accident
occurs; however, the priority is to be sure future accidents are prevented. (C) Ipecac is not
used for caustic alkali and acid ingestions. (D) Determining the parent’s knowledge about
safety hazards and teaching appropriate preventive measures are likely to prevent
recurrence of accidents
Question # 14
A 33-year-old client is diagnosed with bipolar disorder, acute phase. This is her first
psychiatric hospitalization, and she is being evaluated for treatment with lithium. Which of
the following diagnostic tests are essential prior to the initiation of lithium therapy with this
client?
A. Hematocrit, hemoglobin, and white blood cell (WBC) count B. Blood urea nitrogen, electrolytes, and creatinine C. Glucose, glucose tolerance test, and random blood sugar D. X-rays, electroencephalogram, and electrocardiogram
(ECG)
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) These are general diagnostic blood studies (usually done on admission), but they are
not reliable indicators of lithium therapy clearance. (B) These are the primary diagnostic
tests to determine kidney functioning. Because lithium is excreted through the kidneys and
because it can be very toxic, adequate renal function must be ascertained before therapy
begins. (C) These are diagnostic blood tests used to determine the presence of endocrine
(not renal) dysfunction. (D) These are other types of diagnostic procedures used to
determine musculoskeletal, neural, and cardiac (rather than renal) functioning.
Question # 15
Which of the following physician’s orders would the nurse question on a client with chronicarterial insufficiency?
A. Neurovascular checks every 2 hours B. Elevate legs on pillows C. Arteriogram in the morning D. No smoking
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Neurovascular checks are a routine part of assessment with clients having this
diagnosis. (B) Elevation of the legs is contraindicated because it reduces blood flow to
areas already compromised. (C) Arteriogram is a routine diagnostic order. (D) Smoking is
highly correlated with this disorder.
Question # 16
A woman diagnosed with multiple sclerosis is disturbed with diplopia. The nurse will teachher to:
A. Limit activities which require focusing (close vision) B. Take more frequent naps C. Use artificial tears D. Wear a patch over one eye
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Limiting activities requiring close vision will not alleviate the discomfort of double vision.
(B) Frequent naps may be comforting, but they will not prevent double vision. (C) Artificial
tears are necessary in the absence of a corneal reflex, but they have no effect on diplopia.
(D) An eye patch over either eye will eliminate the effects of double vision during the time
the eye patch is worn. An eye patch is safe for a person with an intact corneal reflex.
Question # 17
A 4-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with bruises on his head, face, arms,
and legs. His mother states that he fell down some steps. The nurse suspects that he may
have been physically abused. In accordance with the law, the nurse must:
A. Tell the physician her concerns B. Report her suspicions to the authorities C. Talk to the child’s father D. Confront the child’s mother
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Although the nurse probably would talk to the physician about these concerns, the
nurse is not required by law to do so. (B) All healthcare workers are required by the Federal
Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment Act of 1974 to report suspected and actual cases of
child abuse and/or neglect. (C) Talking to the child’s father may or may not help the child,
and the nurse is not required by law to do so. (D) Confrontation may not be indicated; the
nurse is not required by law to confront the child’s mother with these suspicions.
Question # 18
Which of the following nursing orders has the highest priority for a child with epiglottitis?
A. Vital signs every shift B. Tracheostomy set at bedside C. Intake and output D. Specific gravity every shift
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Because of the possibility of fever or respiratory failure, vital signs should be done more
often than every eight hours. (B) If the epiglottitis worsens, the edema and laryngospasm
may close the airway and an emergency tracheostomy may be necessary. (C) Although
intake and output are a part of the nursing care of a child with epiglottitis, it is not as
important as the safety measure of keeping the tracheostomy set at the bedside. (D)
Specific gravity will indicate hydration status, but it is not as important as keeping the
tracheostomy set at the bedside.
Question # 19
A client delivered a stillborn male at term. An appropriate action of the nurse would be to:
A. State, “You have an angel in heaven.” B. Discourage the parents from seeing the baby. C. Provide an opportunity for the parents to see and hold the baby for an undeterminedamount of time. D. Reassure the parents that they can have other children.
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) This is not a supportive statement. There are also no data to indicate the family’s
religious beliefs. (B) Seeing their baby assists the parents in the grieving process. This
gives them the opportunity to say “good-bye.” (C) Parents need time to get to know their
baby. (D) This is not a comforting statement when a baby has died. There are also no
guarantees that the couple will be able to have another child.
Question # 20
In caring at home for a child who just ingested a caustic alkali, the nurse would immediately
tell the mother to:
A. Give vinegar, lemon juice, or orange juice B. Phone the doctor C. Take the child to the emergency room D. Induce vomiting
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The immediate action is to neutralize the action of the chemical before further damage
takes place. (B) This action should be done after neutralizing the chemical. (C) This action
should be done after neutralizing the chemical. (D) Never induce vomiting with a strong
alkali or acid. Additional damage will be done when the child vomits the chemical.
Question # 21
A client is receiving IV morphine 2 days after colorectal surgery. Which of the following
observations indicate that he may be becoming drug dependent?
A. The client requests pain medicine every 4 hours. B. He is asleep 30 minutes after receiving the IV morphine. C. He asks for pain medication although his blood pressure and pulse rate are normal. D. He is euphoric for about an hour after each injection.
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Frequent requests for pain medication do not necessarily indicate drug dependence
after complex surgeries such as colorectal surgery. (B) Sleeping after receiving IV
morphine is not an unexpected effect because the pain is relieved. (C) A person may be in
pain even with normal vital signs. (D) A subtle sign of drug dependency is the tendency for
the person to appear more euphoric than relieved of pain
Question # 22
The mother of a child taking phenytoin will need to plan appropriate mouth care and
gingival stimulation. When tooth-brushing is contraindicated, the next most effective
cleansing and gingival stimulation technique would be:
A. Using a water pik B. Rinsing with water C. Rinsing with hydrogen peroxide D. Rinsing with baking soda
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) This technique provides effective rinsing and gingival stimulation. (B) This technique
does not provide gingival stimulation. (C) This technique provides effective rinsing but not
gingival stimulation. Using peroxide is not pleasant for the child. (D) This technique
provides effective rinsing but not gingival stimulation.
Question # 23
A measurable outcome criterion in the nursing care of an adolescent with anorexia nervosa
would be:
A. Accepting her present body image B. Verbalizing realistic feelings about her body C. Having an improved perception of her body image D. Exhibiting increased self-esteem
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) This outcome criterion is inadequate because the term “accepts” is not directly
measurable. (B) This outcome criterion is directly measurable because specific goal-related
verbalizations can be heard and verified by the nurse. (C) “Improved perception of body
image” is not directly measurable and is therefore open to many interpretations. (D)
Although long-term goals for the anorexic client should focus on increased self-esteem, this
outcome criterion (as stated) does not include specific indicators or behaviors for which to
observe.
Question # 24
Which of the following should the nurse anticipate receiving as an as-needed order for a
postoperative carotid endarterectomy client?
A. Nifedipine 10 mg SL for B/P 140/90 B. Furosemide 20 mg/PO for decreased urine output C. Magnesium salicylate to decrease inflammation D. Nitroglycerin gr 1/150 for chest pain
Answer: A Explanation: (A) It is important to maintain a normal to slightly lower pressure to prevent the graft from
blowing and excessive pressure to surgical vascular areas. (B, C, D) None of these drugs
is related to managing the problem at hand. Also, none of the problems for which these
drugs would be indicated is expected with this type of surgery, except if there is a prior
history.
Question # 25
The mother of a client is apprehensive about taking home her 2 year old who was
diagnosed with asthma after being admitted to the emergency room with difficulty breathing
and cyanosis. She asks the nurse what symptoms she should look for so that this problem
will not happen again. The nurse instructs her to watch for the following early symptoms:
A. Fever, runny nose, and hyperactivity B. Changes in breathing pattern, moodiness, fatigue, and edema of eyes C. Fatigue, dark circles under the eyes, changes in breathing pattern, glassy eyes, and
moodiness D. Fever, cough, paleness, and wheezing
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) The child with asthma may not have fever unless there is an underlying infection. (B)
Edema of the eyes will not be present because the child with asthma is more likely to have
dehydration related to excessive water loss during the work of breathing. (C) All of these
symptoms indicate decreased oxygenation and are early symptoms of asthma. (D)
Coughing and wheezing are not early signs of difficulty.
Question # 26
A client is to be discharged from the hospital and is to continue taking warfarin 2.5 mg pobid. Which of the following should be included in her discharge teaching concerning thewarfarin therapy?
A. “If you forget to take your morning dose, double the night time dose.” B. “You should take aspirin instead of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches.” C. “Carry a medications alert card with you at all times.” D. “You should use a straight-edge razor when shaving your arms and legs.”
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Warfarin must always be taken exactly as directed. Clients should be instructed never
to skip or double up on their dosage. (B) Aspirin decreases platelet aggregation, which
would potentiate the effects of the coumadin. (C) Healthcare providers need to be aware of
persons on warfarin therapy prior to the initiation of any diagnostic tests and/or surgery to
help prevent bleeding complications. (D) An electric razor should be used to prevent
accidental cutting, which can lead to bleeding.
Question # 27
Discharge teaching for the client who has a total gastrectomy should include which of thefollowing?
A. Need for the client to increase fluid intake to 3000 mL/day B. Follow-up visits every 3 weeks for the first 6 months C. B12 injections needed for the rest of the client’s life D. Need to eat three full meals with plenty of fiber per day
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) There will be no need to increase fluid intake excessively, because dumping syndrome
could present a problem. (B) Followup visits every 3 weeks are not a standard
recommendation. Follow-up visits will be highly individualized. (C) With removal of the
stomach, intrinsic factor will no longer be produced. Intrinsic factor is necessary for vitamin
B12 absorption. Parenteral injections of B12 will be needed on a monthly basis for the rest
of the person’s life. (D) Smaller, more frequent meals, rather than large, bulky meals, are
recommended to prevent problems with dumping syndrome.
Question # 28
A female client is started on warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg po bid. To adequately evaluate theeffectiveness of the warfarin therapy, the nurse must know that this medication:
A. Dissolves any clots already formed in the arteries B. Prevents the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin C. Interferes with the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors D. Stimulates the manufacturing of platelets
deposits, which in turn dissolves clots that have already formed. (B) Heparin prevents the
formation of clots by potentiating the effects of antithrombin III and the conversion of
prothrombin to thrombin. (C) Warfarin prevents the formation of clots by interfering with the
hepatic synthesis of the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. (D) Platelets initiate the
coagulation of blood by adhering to each other and the site of injury to form platelet plugs.
Question # 29
A 29-year-old client is admitted for a hysterectomy. She has repeatedly told the nurses that
she is worried about having this surgery, has not slept well lately, and is afraid that her
husband will not find her desirable after the surgery. Shortly into the preoperative teaching,
she complains of a tightness in her chest, a feeling of suffocation, lightheadedness, and
tingling in her hands. Her respirations are rapid and deep. Assessment reveals that the
client is:
A. Having a heart attack B. Wanting attention from the nurses C. Suffering from complete upper airway obstruction D. Hyperventilating
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Classic symptoms of a heart attack include heaviness or squeezing pain in the chest,
pain spreading to the jaw, neck, and arm. Nausea and vomiting, sweating, and shortness of
breath may be present. The client does not exhibit these symptoms. (B) Clients suffering
from anxiety or fear prior to surgical procedures may develop hyperventilation. This client is
not seeking attention. (C) Symptoms of complete airway obstruction include not being able
to speak, and no airflow between the nose and mouth. Breath sounds are absent. (D)
Tightness in the chest; a feeling of suffocation; lightheadedness; tingling in the hands; and
rapid, deep respirations are signs and symptoms of hyperventilation. This is almost always
a manifestation of anxiety.
Question # 30
A 52-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital in acute renal failure. She has beenon hemodialysis for the past 2 years. Stat arterial blood gases are drawn on the clientyielding the following results: pH 7.30, PCO2 51 mm Hg, HCO3, 18 mEq/L, PaO2, 84 mmHg. The nurse would interpret these results as:
A. Compensated metabolic alkalosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis D. Combined respiratory and metabolic acidosis
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Compensated metabolic alkalosis would be reflected by the following: pH within normal
limit (7.35–7.45), PCO2 > 45 mm Hg, HCO3 >26 mEq/L. (B) Respiratory acidosis would be
reflected by the following: pH < 7.35, PCO2 > 45 mm Hg, HCO3 within normal limits (22–26
mEq/L). (C) Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis would be reflected by the following:
pH > 7.45, PCO2 > 45 mm Hg, HCO3 > 26 mEq/L. (D) Combined respiratory and
metabolicacidosis would be reflected by the following: pH < 7.35, PCO2 > 45 mm Hg,
HCO3 < 22 mEq/L.
Question # 31
In discussing the plan of care for a child with chronic nephrosis with the mother, the nurseidentifies that the purpose of weighing the child is to:
A. Measure adequacy of nutritional management B. Check the accuracy of the fluid intake record C. Impress the child with the importance of eating well D. Determine changes in the amount of edema
Answer: D Explanation: (A) Weighing a child with nephrosis is to assess for edema, not nutrition. (B, C) This is not
the purpose for weighing the child. (D) Weight and measurement are the primary ways of
evaluating edema and fluid shifts.
Question # 32
A child with celiac disease is being discharged from the hospital. The mother demonstratesknowledge of nutritional needs of her child when she is able to state the foods which areincluded in a:
A. Lactose-restricted diet B. Gluten-restricted diet C. Phenylalanine-restricted diet D. Fat-restricted diet
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) A lactose-restricted diet is prescribed for children with lactose intolerance or diarrhea.
(B) A gluten-restricted diet is the diet for children with celiac disease. (C) A
phenylalaninerestricted diet is prescribed for children with phenylketonuria. (D) A fatrestricted diet is prescribed for children with disorders of the liver, gallbladder, or pancreas.
Question # 33
Four days after admission for cirrhosis of the liver, the nurse observes the following whenassessing a male client: increased irritability, asterixis, and changes in his speech pattern.Which of the following foods would be appropriate for his bedtime snack?
A. Fresh fruit B. A milkshake C. Saltine crackers and peanut butter D. A ham and cheese sandwich
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Albumin, a blood volume expander, increases the circulating blood volume by exerting
an osmotic pull on tissue fluids, pulling them into the vascular system. This fluid shift
causes an increase in the heart rate and blood pressure. (B) Albumin, a blood volume
expander, exerts an osmotic pull on fluids in the interstitial spaces, pulling the fluid back
into the circulatory system. This fluid shift causes an increase in the urinary output. (C) Adventitious breath sounds and dyspnea can occur due to circulatory overload if the
albumin is infused too rapidly. (D) Chills, fever, itching, and rashes are signs of a
hypersensitivity reaction to albumin.
Question # 34
Diabetes mellitus is a disorder that affects 3.1 out of every 1000 children younger than 20years old. It is characterized by an absence of, or marked decrease in, circulating insulin.When teaching a newly diagnosed diabetes client, the nurse includes information on thefunctions of insulin:
A. Transport of glucose into body cells and storage of glycogen in the liver B. Glycogenolysis and facilitation of glucose use for energy C. Glycogenolysis and catabolism D. Catabolism and hyperglycemia
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Lack of insulin causes glycogenolysis, catabolism, and hyperglycemia. (B) Insulin
promotes the conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage and regulates the rate at which
carbohydrates are used by cells for energy. (C) Insulin is anabolic in nature. (D) Glucose
stimulates protein synthesis within the tissue and inhibits the breakdown of protein into
amino acids.
Question # 35
The nurse assesses a postoperative mastectomy client and notes that breath sounds arediminished in both posterior bases. The nurse’s action should be to:
A. Encourage coughing and deep breathing each hour B. Obtain arterial blood gases C. Increase O2 from 2–3 L/min D. Remove the postoperative dressing to check for bleeding
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Decreased or absent breath sounds are frequently indicators of postoperative
atelectasis. (B) Arterial blood gases are not indicated because there is no other information
indicating impendingdanger. (C) Increasing O2 rate is not indicated without additional
information. (D) Removing the dressing is not indicated without additional information.
Question # 36
The nurse is teaching a client how to perform monthly testicular self-examination (TSE) and
states that it is best to perform the procedure right after showering. This statement is made
by the nurse based on the knowledge that:
A. The client is more likely to remember to perform the TSE when in the nude B. When the scrotum is exposed to cool temperatures, the testicles become large and
bulky C. The scrotum will be softer and more relaxed after a warm shower, making the testicles
easier to palpate D. The examination will be less painful at this time
Answer: C
Explanation: (A) Nudity is not a trigger for reminding males to perform TSE. (B) Testicles become more
firm when exposed to cool temperatures, but not large and bulky. (C) The testicles will be
lower and more easily palpated with warmer temperatures. A protective mechanism of the
body to protect sperm production is for the scrotum to pull closer to the body when exposed
to cooler temperatures. (D) The examination should not be p
Question # 37
A client is having episodes of hyperventilation related to her surgery that is scheduled
tomorrow. Appropriate nursing actions to help control hyperventilating include:
A. Administering diazepam (Valium) 10–15 mg po q4h and q1h prn for hyperventilating
episode B. Keeping the temperature in the client’s room at a high level to reduce respiratory
stimulation C. Having the client hold her breath or breathe into a paper bag when hyperventilation
episodes occur D. Using distraction to help control the client’s hyperventilation episodes
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) An adult diazepam dosage for treatment of anxiety is 2–10 mg PO 2–4 times daily. The
order as written would place a client at risk for overdose. (B) A high room temperature
could increase hyperventilating episodes by stimulating the respiratory system. (C) Breath
holding and breathing into a paper bag may be useful in controlling hyperventilation. Both
measures increase CO2 retention. (D) Distraction will not prevent or control
hyperventilation caused by anxiety or fear.
Question # 38
A 25-year-old client is admitted for a tonsillectomy. She tells the nurse that she has had
episodes of muscle cramps, weakness, and unexplained temperature elevation. Many
years ago her father died shortly after surgery after developing a high fever. She further
tells the nurse that her surgeon is having her take dantrolene sodium (Dantrium)
prophylactically prior to her tonsillectomy. Dantrolene sodium is ordered preoperatively to
reduce the risk or prevent:
A. Infection postoperatively B. Malignant hyperthermia C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome D. Fever postoperatively
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A, D) Dantrolene sodium is a peripheral skeletal muscle relaxant and would have no effect
on a postoperative infection. (B) Dantrolene sodium is indicated prophylactically for clients
with malignant hyperthermia or with a family history of the disorder. The mortality rate for
malignant hyperthermia is high. (C) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is an exercise-induced
muscle pain and spasm and is unrelated to malignant hyperthermia.
Question # 39
A 27-year-old male client is admitted to the acute care mental health unit for observation.He has recently lost his job, and his wife told him yesterday that she wants a divorce. Theclient is placed on suicide precautions. In assessing suicide potential, the nurse should payclose attention to the client’s:
A. Level of insight B. Thought processes C. Mood and affect D. Abstracting abilities
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Assessing the client’s level of insight is an important part of the mental status exam
(MSE), but it does not reflect suicide potential. (B) Assessing the client’s thought processes
is an important part of the MSE, but it does not reflect suicide potential. (C) Assessing the
client’s mood and affect is an important part of the MSE, and it can be a very valuable
indicator of suicide potential. Frequently a client who has decided to proceed with suicide
plans will exhibit a suddenly improved mood and affect. (D) Assessing a client’s abstracting
abilities is an important part of the MSE, but it does not reflect suicide potential.
Question # 40
A 38-year-old female client with a history of chronic schizophrenia, paranoid type, iscurrently an outpatient at the local mental health and mental retardation clinic. The clientcomes in once a week for medication evaluation and/or refills. She self-administershaloperidol 5 mg twice a day and benztropine 1 mg once a day. During a recent clinic visit,she says to the nurse, “I can’t stay still at night. I toss and turn and can’t fall asleep.” Thenurse suspects that she may be experiencing:
A. Akathisia B. Akinesia C. Dystonia D. Opisthotonos
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Akathisia, or motor restlessness, is a reversible EPS frequently associated with the
administration of antipsychotic drugs such as haloperidol. (B) Akinesia, or muscular or
motor retardation, is an example of reversible EPS frequently associated with the
administration of major tranquilizers such as haloperidol. (C) Acute dystonic reactions,
bizarre and severe muscle contractions usually of the tongue, face, neck or extraocular
muscles, are examples of EPS. (D) Opisthotonos, a severe type of whole-body dystonic
reaction in which the head and heels are bent backward while the body is bowed forward,
is an example of EPS.
Question # 41
Parents should be taught not to prop the bottle when feeding their infants. In addition to the risk of choking, it puts the infant at risk for:
A. Otitis media B. Asthma C. Conjunctivitis D. Tonsillitis
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Because the eustachian tube is short and straight in the infant, formula that pools in the
back of the throat attacks bacteria which can enter the middle ear and cause an infection.
(B) Asthma is not associated with propping the bottle. (C) Conjunctivitis is an eye infection
and not associated with propping the bottle. (D) Tonsillitis is usually a result of pharyngitis
and not propping the bottle.
Question # 42
Following a gastric resection, a 70-year-old client is admitted to the postanesthesia care
unit. He was extubated prior to leaving the suite. On arrival at the postanesthesia care unit,
the nurse should:
A. Check airway, feeling for amount of air exchange noting rate, depth, and quality ofrespirations B. Obtain pulse and blood pressure readings noting rate and quality of pulse C. Reassure the client that his surgery is over and that he is in the recovery room D. Review physician’s orders, administering medications as ordered
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Adequate air exchange and tissue oxygenation depend on competent respiratory
function. Checking the airway is the nurse’s priority action. (B) Obtaining the vital signs is
an important action, but it is secondary to airway management. (C) Reorienting a client to
time, place, and person after surgery is important, but it is secondary to airway and vital
signs. (D) Airway management takes precedence over physician’s orders unless they
specifically relate to airway management
Question # 43
A client is started on prednisone 2.5 mg po bid. Which of the following instructions should
be included in her discharge teaching specific to this medication?
A. Increase your oral intake of fluids to at least 4000 mL every day. B. Avoid contact with people who have contagious illnesses. C. Brush your teeth at least 4 times a day with a firm toothbrush. D. Immediately stop taking the prednisone if you feel depressed.
Answer: B
Question # 44
The parents of a 9-year-old child with acute lymphocytic leukemia expressed concernabout his alopecia from cranial irradiation. The nurse explains that:
A. Alopecia is an unavoidable side effect. B. There are several wig makers for children. C. Most children select a favorite hat to protect their heads. D. His hair will grow back in a few months.
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Alopecia has occurred, and knowing it is a side effect does not address their concern.
(B) Although true, it does not give them hope for the future. (C) Although true, it does not
provide them with information of the temporary nature of the situation. (D) Knowing the hair
will grow back provides comfort that the alopecia is temporary.
Question # 45
Stat serum electrolytes ordered for a client in acute renal failure revealed a serum
potassium level of 6.4. The physician is immediately notified and orders 50 mL of dextrose
and 10 U of regular insulin IV push. The nurse administering these drugs knows the
Rationale for this therapy is to:
A. Remove the potassium from the body by renin exchange B. Protect the myocardium from the effects of hypokalemia C. Promote rapid protein catabolism D. Drive potassium from the serum back into the cells
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate), a cation exchange resin, exchanges
sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine reducing the serum potassium. (B) Calcium is administered to protect the myocardium from the adverse effects of
hyperkalemia. Serum levels reflect hyperkalemia. (C) Rapid catabolism releases potassium
from the body tissue into the bloodstream. Infection and hyperthermia increase the process
of catabolism. (D) The administration of dextrose and regular insulin IV forces potassium
back into the cells decreasing the potassium in the serum.
Question # 46
The nurse notes multiple bruises on the arms and legs of a newly admitted client withlupus. The client states, “I get them whenever I bump into anything.” The nurse wouldexpect to note a decrease in which of the following laboratory tests?
A. Number of platelets B. WBC count C. Hemoglobin level D. Number of lymphocytes
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelets, occurs in lupus and causes a decrease in
blood coagulation and thrombus formation. (B) Clients with lupus will have a decrease in
the WBC count decreasing their resistance to infection. (C) Clients with lupus may have a
decrease in the hemoglobin level causing anemia. (D) Leukopenia, a decrease in white
blood cells, is seen in lupus and decreases resistance to infection.
Question # 47
Three hours postoperatively, a 27-year-old client complains of right leg pain after kneereduction. The first action by the nurse will be to:
A. Assess vital signs B. Elevate the extremity C. Perform a lower extremity neurovascular check D. Remind the client that he has a client-controlled analgesic pump, and reinstruct him onits use
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Vital signs may be altered if there is acute pain or complications related to bleeding or
swelling, but they should not be assessed before checking the affected extremity. (B) The
extremity will be elevated if ordered by the doctor. (C) Assessment of the postoperative
area is important to determine if bleeding, swelling, or decreased circulation is occurring.
(D) Reinforcement of teaching on use of the client-controlled analgesic pump is important,
but not the first action.
Question # 48
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of aplastic anemia and placed on isolation. The nurse notices a family member entering the room without applying the
appropriate apparel. The nurse will approach the family member using the following
information as a basis for discussion:
A. The risks of exposure of the visitor to infectious organisms is great. B. Hospital regulations mandate that everyone in the facility adhere to appropriate codes. C. The client is at extreme risk of acquiring infections. D. Adherence to the guidelines are the latest Centers for Disease Control and Preventionrecommendations on use of protective apparel.
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Although clients with a compromised immune system may acquire infections, the
primary emphasis is on protecting the client. (B, D) Most people are aware of the guidelines
once they see posted signs, so quoting regulations is not likely to result in consistent
adherence to regulations. (C) Clients with aplastic anemia have white cell counts of 2000 or
lower, making them more vulnerable to infections from others.
Question # 49
A 47-year-old male client is admitted for colon surgery. Intravenous antibiotics are begun 2
hours prior to surgery. He has no known infection. The rationale for giving antibiotics prior
to surgery is to:
A. Provide cathartic action within the colon B. Reduce the risk of wound infection from anaerobic bacteria C. Relieve the client’s concern regarding possible infection D. Reduce the risk of intraoperative fever
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Cathartic drugs promote evacuation of intestinal contents. (B) The client undergoing
intestinal surgery is at increased risk for infection from large numbers of anaerobic bacteria
that inhabit the intestines. Administering antibiotics prophylactically can reduce the client’s
risk for infection. (C) Antibiotics are indicated in the treatment of infections and have no
effect on emotions. (D) Antipyretics are useful in the treatment of elevated temperatures.
Antibiotics would have an effect on infection, which causes temperature elevation, but
would not directly affect such an elevation.
Question # 50
A 6-year-old child returned to the surgical floor 20 hours ago after an appendectomy for a
gangrenous appendix. His mother tells the nurse that he is becoming more restless and is
anxious. Assessment findings indicate that the child has atelectasis. Appropriate nursing
actions would include:
A. Allowing the child to remain in the position of comfort, preferably semi-or high-Fowler
position B. Administering analgesics as ordered C. Having the child turn, cough, and deep breathe every 1–2 hours D. Remaining with the child and keeping as calm and quiet as possible
Answer: C Explanation: (A) Allowing the client to remain in the position of comfort will not resolve the atelectasis.
This position, if left unchanged, over time may actually increase the atelectasis. (B)
Analgesics will not resolve the atelectasis and may contribute to it if proper nursing actions
are not taken to help resolve the atelectasis. (C) Having the client turn, cough, and deep
breathe every 1–2 hours will aid in resolving the atelectasis. Surgery clients are at risk for
postoperative respiratory complications because pulmonary function is reduced as a result
of anesthesia and surgery. (D) Remaining with the client and keeping him calm and quiet
will not affect the client’s anxiety, restlessness, or help to resolve the atelectasis. The
cause (atelectasis) needs to be treated, not the symptoms (anxiety and restlessness)
Question # 51
During discharge planning, parents of a child with rheumatic fever should be able to identifywhich of the following as toxic symptoms of sodium salicylate?
A. Tinnitus and nausea B. Dermatitis and blurred vision C. Unconsciousness and acetone odor of the breath D. Chills and an elevation of temperature
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) These are toxic symptoms of sodium salicylate. (B, C, D) These are not symptoms
associated with sodium salicylate.
Question # 52
A 3-year-old female client is brought into the pediatric clinic because she limps. She has
not been to the clinic since she was 9 months old. The nurse practitioner describes the limp
as a “Trendelenburg gait.” This gait is characteristic of:
A. Scoliosis B. Dislocated hip C. Fractured femur D. Fractured pelvis
Answer: B Explanation:
(A, C, D) A Trendelenburg gait is not characteristic of any of these disorders. (B) The downward slant of one hip is a positive sign of dislocation in the weight-bearing hip. If one
hip is dislocated, the child walks with a characteristic limp known as the Trendelenburg
gait.
Question # 53
A 14-year-old teenager is hospitalized for anorexia nervosa. She is admitted to the
adolescent mental health unit and placed on a behavior modification program. Nursing
interventions for the teenager will most likely include:
A. Establishing routine tasks and activities around mealtimes B. Administering medications such as lithium C. Requiring the client to eat more during meals D. Checking the client’s room frequently
Answer: A
Explanation: (A) Providing a more structured, supportive environment addresses safety and comfort
needs, thereby helping the anorexic client develop more internal control. (B) Medications
(commonly antidepressants) are frequently ordered for the anorexic client. However, lithium
(used primarily with bipolar disorder) is not commonly used to treat the anorexic client. (C)
Requiring and/or demanding that the anorexic client “eat more” at mealtimes increases the
client’s feelings of powerlessness. (D) Like the previous strategy, checking the client’s
room frequently contributes to the client’s feelings of powerlessness.
Question # 54
A client reports to the nurse that the voices are practically nonstop and that he needs toleave the hospital immediately to find his girlfriend and kill her. The best verbal response tothe client by the nurse at this time is:
A. “I understand that the voices are real to you, but I want you to know I don’t hear them.They are a symptom of your illness.” B. “Just don’t pay attention to the voices. They’ll go away after some medication.” C. “You can’t leave here. This unit is locked and the doctor has not ordered yourdischarge.” D. “We will have to put you in seclusion and restraints for a while. You could hurt someonewith thoughts like that.”
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) This response validates the client’s experience and presents reality to him. (B) This
nontherapeutic response minimizes and dismisses the client’s verbalized experience. (C)
This response can be interpreted by a paranoid client as a threat, thereby increasing the
client’s potential for violence and loss of control. (D) This response is also threatening. The
client’s behavior does not call for restraints because he has not lost control or hurt anyone.
If seclusion or restraints were indicated, the nurse should never confront the client alone.
Question # 55
When assessing a client, the nurse notes the typical skin rash seen with systemic lupus
erythematosus. Which of the following descriptions correctly describes this rash?
A. Small round or oval reddish brown macules scattered over the entire body B. Scattered clusters of macules, papules, and vesicles over the body C. Bright red appearance of the palmar surface of the hands D. Reddened butterfly shaped rash over the cheeks and nose
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) The appearance of small, round or oval reddish brown macules scattered over the
entire body is characteristic of rubeola. (B) The appearance of scattered clusters of
macules, papules, and vesicles throughout the body is characteristic of chickenpox. (C)
Palmar redness is seen in clients with cirrhosis of the liver. (D) The characteristic butterfly
rash over the cheek and nose and into the scalp is seen with systemic lupus
erythematosus.
Question # 56
A client with a head injury asks why he cannot have something for his headache. Thenurse’s response is based on the understanding that analgesics could:
A. Counteract the effects of antibiotics B. Elevate the blood pressure C. Mask symptoms of increasing intracranial pressure D. Stimulate the central nervous system
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Analgesic medication does not counteract the effects of antibiotics. (B) Analgesic
medication may lower blood pressure elevated due to anxiety. (C) Analgesic medication,
especially CNS depressants, is not given if there is danger of increasing ICP, because
neurological changes may not be apparent. Also, further depression of the CNS is
contraindicated. (D) Analgesics do not stimulate the CNS.
Question # 57
The nurse enters the room of a client on which a “do not resuscitate” order has been
written and discovers that she is not breathing. Once the husband realizes what has
occurred he yells, “please save her!” The nurse’s action would be:
A. Call the physician and inform him that the client has expired. B. Remind the husband that the physician wrote an order not to resuscitate. C. Discuss with the husband that these orders are written only on clients who are not likely
to recover with resuscitative efforts. D. Call a code and proceed with cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A, B, C) The last request from the husband overrides the decision not to initiate
resuscitation efforts. (D) The nurse should begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation unless a
living will and durable power of attorney are in force. In the meantime, the nurse should talk
with the husband and notify the doctor.
Question # 58
To prevent transmission of bacterial meningitis, the nurse would instruct an infected baby’smother to:
A. Avoid touching the baby while in the room. B. Stay outside of the baby’s room. C. Wear a gown and gloves and wash her hands before and after leaving the room. D. Wear a mask while in the room.
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) The mother should be allowed and encouraged to touch her baby. (B) With care,
transmission can be prevented. There is no need for the mother to stay outside the room.
(C) Everyone entering the baby’s room should take appropriate measures to prevent
transmission of pathogens. (D) Wearing a mask will not protect against transmission of
pathogens.
Question # 59
A psychiatric client has been stabilized and is to be discharged. The nurse will recognize
client insight and behavioral change by which of the following client statements?
A. “When I get home, I will need to take my medicines and call my therapist if I have any
side effects or begin to hear voices.” B. “If I have any side effects from my medicines, I will take an extra dose of Cogentin.” C. “When I get home, I should be able to taper myself off the Haldol because the voices are
gone now.” D. “As soon as I leave here, I’m throwing away my medicines. I never thought I needed
them anyway.”
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The client verbalizes that he is responsible for compliance and keeping the treatment team member informed of progress. This behavior puts him at the lowest risk for relapse.
(B) Noncompliance is a major cause of relapse. This statement reflects lack of
responsibility for his own health maintenance. (C) This statement reflects lack of insight into
the importance of compliance. (D) This statement reflects no insight into his illness or his
responsibility in health maintenance.
Question # 60
The nurse is collecting a nutritional history on a 28- year-old female client with irondeficiency anemia and learns that the client likes to eat white chalk. When implementing ateaching plan, the nurse should explain that this practice:
A. Will bind calcium and therefore interfere with its metabolism B. Will cause more premenstrual cramping C. Interferes with iron absorption because the iron precipitates as an insoluble substance D. Causes competition at iron-receptor sites between iron and vitamin B1
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Eating chalk is not related to calcium and its absorption. (B) Poor nutritional habits may
result in increased discomfort during premenstrual days, but this is not a primary reason for
the client to stop eating chalk. Premenstrual discomfort has not been mentioned. (C) Iron is
rendered insoluble and is excreted through the gastrointestinal tract. (D) There is no
competition between the two nutrients.
Question # 61
The physician orders medication for a client’s unpleasant side effects from the haloperidol.The most appropriate drug at this time is:
A. Lorazepam B. Triazolam (Halcion) C. Benztropine D. Thiothixene
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine, or antianxiety agent, that potentiates the effects of _-
aminobutyric acid in the CNS, which is not the CNS neurotransmitter EPS. (B) Triazolam is
a benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic whose action is mediated in the limbic, thalamic, and
hypothalamic levels of the CNS by - aminobutyric acid. (C) Benztropine is an
anticholinergic agent, and the drug of choice for blocking CNS synaptic response, which
causes EPS. (D) Thiothixene is an antipsychotic and neuroleptic drug that blocks dopamine
neurotransmission at the CNS synapses, thereby causing EPS.
Question # 62
During the assessment, the nurse observes a client scratching his skin. He has beenadmitted to rule out Laennec’s cirrhosis of the liver. The nurse knows the pruritus is directlyrelated to:
A. A loss of phagocytic activity B. Faulty processing of bilirubin C. Enhanced detoxification of drugs D. The formation of collateral circulation
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) A loss in the phagocytic activity of the Kupffer cells occurs with cirrhosis of the liver,
which increases the susceptibility to infections. (B) The faulty processing of bilirubin
produces bilesalts, which are irritating to the skin. (C) The detoxification of drugs is
impaired with cirrhosis of the liver. (D) Collateral circulation develops due to portal
hypertension. This is manifest through the development of esophageal varices,
hemorrhoids, and caput medusae.
Question # 63
The nurse notes scattered crackles in both lungs and 1+ pitting edema when assessing a
cardiac client. The physician is notified and orders furosemide (Lasix) 80 mg IV push stat.
Which of the following diagnostic studies is monitored to assess for a major complication of
this therapy?
A. Serum electrolytes B. Arterial blood gases C. Complete blood count D. 12-Lead ECG
Answer: A
Explanation: (A) Furosemide, a potassium-depleting diuretic, inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and
chloride from the loop of Henle and the distal renal tubules. Serum electrolytes are
monitored for hypokalemia. (B) Severe acid-base imbalances influence the movement of
potassium into and out of the cells, but arterial blood gases to not measure the serum
potassium level. (C) Furosemide is a potassium-depleting diuretic. A complete blood count
does not reflect potassium levels. (D) Abnormalities in potassium (both hyperkalemia and
hypokalemia) are reflected in ECG changes, but these changes do not occur until the
abnormality is severe
Question # 64
A child is admitted with severe headache, fever, vomiting, photophobia, drowsiness, and
stiff neck associated with viral meningitis. She will be more comfortable if the nurse:
A. Dims the lights in her room B. Encourages her to breathe slowly and deeply C. Offers sips of warm liquids D. Places a large, soft pillow under her head
Answer: A Explanation:
(A) The discomfort of photophobia is alleviated by dimming the lights. (B) Helping the child
to breathe slowly and deeply may help to reduce anxiety, but it will not alleviate other
discomforts of viral meningitis. (C) It is important to maintain fluid balance, but sips of warm
liquids do not alleviate the discomforts of meningitis. (D) A large, soft pillow under her head
causing neck flexion is likely to increase her discomfort owing to stretching of the
meninges.
Question # 65
A client develops complications following a hysterectomy. Blood cultures revealPseudomonas aeruginosa. The nurse expects that the physician would order anappropriate antibiotic to treat P. aeruginosa such as:
A. Cefoperazone (Cefobid) B. Clindamycin (Cleocin) C. Dicloxacillin (Dycill) D. Erythromycin (Erythrocin)
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Cefoperazone is indicated in the treatment of infection withPseudomonas aeruginosa.
(B) Clindamycin is not indicated in the treatment of infection withP. aeruginosa.(C)
Dicloxacillin is not indicated in the treatment of infection withP. aeruginosa.(D)
Erythromycin is not indicated in the treatment of infection withP. aeruginosa
Question # 66
A couple is experiencing difficulties conceiving a baby. The nurse explains basal body
temperature (BBT) by instructing the female client to take her temperature:
A. Orally in the morning and at bedtime B. Only one time during the day as long as it is always at the same time of day C. Rectally at bedtime D. As soon as she awakens, prior to any activity
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Monitoring temperature twice a day predicts the biphasic pattern of ovulation. (B)
Prediction of ovulation relies on consistency in taking temperature. (C) Nightly rectal
temperatures are more accurate in predicting ovulation. (D) Activity changes the accuracy
of basal body temperature and ability to detect the luteinizing hormone surge.
Question # 67
A 23-year-old male client is admitted to the chemical dependency unit with a medicaldiagnosis of alcoholism. He reports that the last time he drank was 3 days ago, and thatnow he is starting to “feel kind of shaky.” Based on the information given above, nursingcare goals for this client will initially focus on:
A. Self-concept problems B. Interpersonal issues C. Ineffective coping skills D. Physiological stabilization
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Self-concept and self-esteem problems may emerge during the client’s treatment, but
these are not immediate concerns. (B) Interpersonal issues may become evident during the
course of the client’s treatment, but these are also not immediate areas of concern. (C)
Improving individual coping skills is generally a primary focus in the treatment and nursing
care of persons with substance abuse problems. However, this is still not the immediate
concern in this client situation. (D) Correction of fluid and electrolyte status and vitamin
deficiencies, as well as prevention of delirium, is the immediate concern in the care of this
client.
Question # 68
A child has a nursing diagnosis of fluid volume excess related to compromised regulatory
mechanisms. Which of the following nursing interventions is the most accurate measure to
include in his care?
A. Weigh the child twice daily on the same scale. B. Monitor intake and output. C. Check urine specific gravity of each voiding. D. Observe for edema.Answer: A
Explanation:
Answer: A
Explanation: (A) Although all of these interventions are important aspects of care, weight is the most
sensitive indicator of fluid balance. (B) Although monitoring intake and output is important,
weight is a more accurate indicator of fluid status. (C) Urine specific gravity does not
necessarily indicate fluid volume excess. (D) Edema may not be apparent, yet the client may have fluid volume excess.
Question # 69
A 44-year-old client had an emergency cholecystectomy 3 days ago for a rupturedgallbladder. She complains of severe abdominal pain. Assessment reveals abdominalrigidity and distention, increased temperature, and tachycardia. Diagnostic testing revealsan elevated WBC count. The nurse suspects that the client has developed:
A. Gastritis B. Evisceration C. Peritonitis D. Pulmonary embolism
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Assessment findings for gastritis would reveal anorexia, nausea and vomiting,
epigastric fullness and tenderness, and discomfort. (B) Evisceration is the extrusion of
abdominal viscera as a result of trauma or sutures failing in a surgical incision. (C)
Peritonitis, inflammation of the peritoneum, can occur when an abdominal organ, such as
the gallbladder, perforates and leaks blood and fluid into the abdominal cavity. This causes
infection and irritation. (D) Assessment findings of pulmonary embolism would reveal
severe substernal chest pain, tachycardia, tachypnea, shortness of breath, anxiety or
panic, and wheezing and coughing often accompanied by blood-tinged sputum.
Question # 70
The mother of a preschooler reports to the nurse that he frequently tells lies. The admissionassessment of the child indicates possible child abuse. The nurse knows that his:
A. Behavior is not normal, and a child psychiatrist should be consulted. B. Mother is lying to protect herself. C. Lying is normal behavior for a preschool child who is learning to separate fantasy fromreality. D. Behavior indicates a developmental delay, because preschoolers should be able to tellright from wrong.
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) Because preschoolers often tell “stories” as they learn to differentiate fantasy from
reality, the child’s behavior is normal. (B) The nurse has no reason to believe the child’s
mother is lying, because children of his age often tell lies. (C) The child’s lying is actually
“storytelling” as he learns to separate fantasy from reality, a normal developmental task for
his age group. (D) The child’s behavior is consistent with his age and does not indicate a
developmental delay.
Question # 71
A client develops an intestinal obstruction postoperatively. A nasogastric tube is attached to
low, intermittent suction with orders to “Irrigate NG tube with sterile saline q1h and prn.”
The rationale for using sterile saline, as opposed to using sterile water to irrigate the NG
tube is:
A. Water will deplete electrolytes resulting in metabolic acidosis. B. Saline will reduce the risk of severe, colicky abdominal pain during NG irrigation. C. Water is not isotonic and will increase restlessness and insomnia in the immediate
postoperative period. D. Saline will increase peristalsis in the bowel.
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Water is a hypotonic solution and will deplete electrolytes and cause metabolic acidosis
when used for nasogastric irrigation. (B) Irrigating with saline does not cause abdominal
discomfort. Severe, colicky abdominal pain is a symptom of intestinal obstruction. (C)
Irrigating with water will not cause restlessness or insomnia in the postoperative client.
Restlessness and insomnia can be emotional complications of surgery. (D) A nasogastric
tube placed in the stomach is used to decompress the bowel. Irrigating with saline ensures
a patent, well-functioning tube. Irrigating with saline will not increase peristalsis.
Question # 72
A 2-year-old toddler is hospitalized with epiglottitis. In assessing the toddler, the nurse
would expect to find:
A. A productive cough B. Expiratory stridor C. Drooling D. Crackles in the lower lobes
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) A productive cough is not associated with epiglottitis. (B) Children with epiglottitis
seldom have expiratory stridor. Inspiratory stridor is more common due to edema of the
supraglottic tissues. (C) Because of difficulty with swallowing, drooling often accompanies
epiglottitis. (D) Crackles are not heard in the lower lobes with epiglottitis because the
infection is usually confined to the supraglottic structures.
Question # 73
The nurse discovers that a 78-year-old client who received hydralazine (Apresoline) 20 mg
45 minutes ago has a blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg. The client has been on this dose of
the medication for 3 years. Which of the following data is most likely significant in relation to
the cause of the low blood pressure?
A. Pedal pulses 11 (weak) B. Twenty-four-hour intake 1000 mL/day for past 2 days C. Serum potassium 3.3 D. Pulse rate 150 bpm
Answer: B
Explanation: (A, D) Decreased pulse volume and increased pulse rate are signs of an acute hypotensive episode. (B) Inadequate fluid volume when taking vasodilators can result in a drop in blood
pressure when vasodilation starts to physiologically occur as an action of the drug. (C) A
potassium level of 3.3 would not be associated with a significant drop in blood pressure.
Question # 74
Two hours after the second injection of haloperidol, a client complains to the nurse of a stiffneck and inability to sit still. He is experiencing symptoms consistent with:
A. Parkinsonism and dystonia B. Dystonia and akathisia C. Akathisia and parkinsonism D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Stiff neck is consistent with a dystonic reaction, but the client has no symptoms of
drooling, shuffling gait, or pill-rolling movements characteristic of parkinsonism. (B) Stiff
neck is consistent with a dystonic reaction, and inability to sit still with varying degrees of
psychomotor agitation is characteristic of akathisia. (C) The client has symptoms of
dystonia but not of parkinsonism. (D) The client has none of the characteristic symptoms of
obtundation, agitation, sweating, increased blood pressure and pulse.
Question # 75
A 35-year-old client is receiving psychopharmacological treatment of his major depressionwith tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate), a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor. The nurseteaches the client that while he is taking this type of antidepressant, he needs to restrict hisdietary intake of:
A. Potassium-rich foods B. Tryptophan C. Tyramine D. Saturated fats
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) The client may need to avoid some potassium-rich foods (such as bananas, raisins,
etc.). However, this is not because of the potassium content of these foods. (B) Tryptophan
is an essential amino acid that is present in high concentrations in animal and fish protein.
(C) The client will need to watch his dietary intake of tyramine. Tyramine is a by-product of
the conversion of tyrosine to epinephrine. Tyramine is found in a variety of foods and
beverages, ranging from aged cheese to caffeine drinks. Ingestion of tyramine-rich foods
while taking a MAO inhibitor may lead to an increase in blood pressure and/or a lifethreatening hypertensive crisis. (D) To maintain a healthy lifestyle, restriction of dietary
saturated fats is advisable.
Question # 76
A 45-year-old client diagnosed with major depression is scheduled for electroconvulsive
therapy (ECT) in the morning. Which of the following medications are routinely
administered either before or during ECT?
A. Thioridazine (Mellaril), lithium, and benztropine B. Atropine, sodium brevitol, and succinylcholine chloride (Anectine) C. Sodium, potassium, and magnesium D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol), haloperidol, and trihexyphenidyl (Artane)
antiparkinsonism agent) are generally administered to treat schizophrenic and bipolar
disorders. (B) Atropine (a cholinergic blocker), sodium brevitol (a shortacting anesthetic),
and succinylcholine (a neuromuscular blocker) are administered either before or during
ECT to coun teract bradycardia and to provide anesthesia and total muscle relaxation. (C)
These are electrolyte substances administered to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances in
the body. (D) Carbamazepine (an anticonvulsant), haldoperidol (an antipsychotic), and
trihexyphenydyl (an antiparkinsonism agent) are usually administered in psychiatric
settings to control problems associated with psychotic behavior.
Question # 77
Nursing assessment of early evidence of septic shock in children at risk includes:
A. Fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea B. Respiratory distress, cold skin, and pale extremities C. Elevated blood pressure, hyperventilation, and thready pulses D. Normal pulses, hypotension, and oliguria
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea are the classic early signs of septic shock in
children. (B) Respiratory distress, cold skin, and pale extremities are later signs of septic
shock. (C) Elevated blood pressure, hyperventilation, and thready pulses are later signs of
septic shock. (D) Normal pulses, hypotension, and oliguria are not early signs of septic
shock.
Question # 78
The nurse is assessing breath sounds in a bronchovesicular client. She should expect that:
A. Inspiration is longer than expiration B. Breath sounds are high pitched C. Breath sounds are slightly muffled D. Inspiration and expiration are equal
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Inspiration is normally longer in vesicular areas. (B) Highpitched sounds are normal in
bronchial area. (C) Muffled sounds are considered abnormal. (D) Inspiration and expiration
are equal normally in this area, and sounds are medium pitched.
Question # 79
When planning care for a 9-year-old client, the nurse uses which of the most effective
means of helping siblings cope with their feelings about a brother who is terminally ill?
A. Open discussion and understanding B. Play-acting out feelings in different roles C. Storytelling D. Drawing pictures
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) When dealing with grief, siblings are usually most comfortable initially with open
discussion. (B) Assuming different roles allows children to act out their feelings without fear
of reprisals and to gain insight and control. (C) This method may be helpful, but having the
child take an active part through role playing is more effective. (D) This technique may be
helpful, but being an active participant through role playing is more effective.
Question # 80
A 30-year-old client has been admitted to the psychiatric service with the diagnosis of
schizophrenia. He tells the nurse that when the woman he had been dating broke up with
him, the CIA had replaced her with an identical twin. The client is experiencing:
A. Grandiose delusions B. Paranoid delusions C. Auditory hallucinations D. Visual hallucinations
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) There are no indications that the client’s thoughts reflect special powers or talents
characteristic of grandiosity. (B) The client’s thought content is fixed, false, persecutory,
and suspicious in nature, which is characteristic of paranoid delusions. (C, D) The client is
not demonstrating a sensory experience.
Question # 81
A family by court order undergoes treatment by a family therapist for child abuse. Thenurse, who is the child’s case manager knows that treatment has been effective when:
A. The child is removed from the home and placed in foster care B. The child’s parents identify the ways in which he is different from the rest of the family C. The child’s father is arrested for child abuse D. The child’s parents can identify appropriate behaviors for children in his age group
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Removing an abused child from the home and placement in a foster home are not the
desired outcome of treatment. (B) Children who are perceived as “different” from the rest of
the family are more likely to be abused. (C) Although legal action may be taken against
abusive parents, it is not an indicator of an effective treatment program. (D) Identification of
age-appropriate behaviors is essential to the role of parents, because misunderstanding
children’s normal developmental needs often contributes to abuse or neglect.
Question # 82
Parents of a child with rheumatic fever express concern that she will always be arthritic.
The nurse discusses their concerns and tells them the joint pain usually:
A. Subsides in<3 weeks B. Is relieved by aspirin C. Is responsive to ibuprofen (Motrin) D. Subsides in 3–6 days
Answer: A
Question # 83
The initial focus when providing nursing care for a child with rheumatic fever during theacute phase of the illness should be to:
A. Maintain contact with her parents B. Provide for physical and psychological rest C. Provide a nutritious diet D. Maintain her interest in school
Answer: B Explanation:
(A) This goal is helpful, but rest is essential during the acute phase. (B) Rest is essential for
healing to occur and for pain to be relieved. (C) This goal is important, but rest is essential.
(D) This goal should be part of the plan of care, but it is not the priority during the acute
phase.
Question # 84
A 40-year-old client has been admitted to the hospital with severe substernal chest pain
radiating down his left arm. The nurse caring for the client establishes the following priority
nursing diagnosis—Alteration in comfort, pain related to:
A. Increased excretion of lactic acid due to myocardial hypoxia B. Increased blood flow through the coronary arteries C. Decreased stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system D. Decreased secretion of catecholamines secondary to anxiety
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Anaerobic metabolism results because the decreased blood supply to the myocardium
causes a release of lactic acid. Lactic acid is an irritant to the myocardial neural receptors,
producing chest pain. (B) Chest pain is caused by a decrease in the O2 supply to the
myocardial cells. Treatment modalities for chest pain are aimed toward increasing the
blood flow through coronary arteries. (C) Chest pain causes an increase in the stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system. This stimulation increases the heart rate and blood
pressure, causing an increase in myocardial workload aggravating the chest pain. (D)
Chest pain and anxiety cause increased secretion of catecholamines by stimulating the
sympathetic nervous system. This stimulation increases chest pain by increasing the
workload of the heart.
Question # 85
The physician orders haloperidol 5 mg IM stat for a client and tells the nurse that the dose
can be repeated in 1–2 hours if needed. The most likely rationale for this order is:
A. The client will settle down more quickly if he thinks the staff is medicating him B. The medication will sedate the client until the physician arrives C. Haloperidol is a minor tranquilizer and will not oversedate the client D. Rapid neuroleptization is the most effective approach to care for the violent or potentiallyviolent client
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) If the client could think logically, he would not be paranoid. In fact, he is probably
suspicious of the staff, too. Newly admitted clients frequently experience high levels of
anxiety, which can contribute to delusions. (B) The goal of pharmacological intervention is
to calm the client and assist with reality-based thinking, not to sedate him. (C) Haloperidol
is a neuroleptic and antipsychotic drug, not a minor tranquilizer. (D) Haloperidol is a highpotency neuroleptic and first-line choice for rapid neuroleptization, with low potential for
sedation.
Question # 86
Loss of appetite for a child with leukemia is a major recurrent problem. The plan of careshould be designed to:
A. Reinforce attempts to eat B. Help the child gain weight C. Increase his appetite D. Make mealtimes pleasant
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Ignoring refusals to eat and rewarding eating attempts are the most successful means
of increasing intake. (B) This goal is not specific enough or related to the loss of appetite.
(C) This goal is not possible at this time based on his illness. (D) This goal is helpful, but